e^2
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Got math? This is the E2 usergroup e2, which was originally a proper subset of the e2science group (e^2 ⊂ e2science). At first, the group name was e π i + 1 = 0, but some whiners thought that would be too hard to send a message:
So here we are instead with a simpler (but more boring) name e^2 often erupts into long mathematical discussions, giving members more /msgs than they care to digest. So, you have a few other options if the math is going to get seriously hairy:
How about logging in? You may want to read some of these while you are calculating ln π. a generalization of the fundamental theorem of symmetric functions (idea)2008-01-02 03:36:47 linked by Oolong A symmetric function is a polynomial or rational function (quotient of polynomials) in n variables which remains invariant no matter how you permute variables (e.g. swap x1 with x2). They feature prominently in Galois theory. The elementary symmetric functions appear as the coefficients of a polynomial in n indeterminates (i.e. the coefficients of f(t) = (t - x1)···(t - xn) ), and the fundamental theorem of symmetric functions says that any symmetric function can be expressed as a polynomial or rational function of elementary symmetric functions. When the original function isn't symmetric, we can still say something interesting.
This theorem, seemingly due to Emil Artin, is a slight generalisation of the fundamental theorem of symmetric functions. It gives the closest possible expression of any polynomial in terms of symmetric functions no matter if the original polynomial is symmetric or not. Or if you prefer, the fundamental theorm of symmetric functions comes as an easy corollary to this theorem. The corollary is obvious. Observe that the nature of monomials is such that they can't be symmetrised, because the powers in the monomial have to be nondecreasing by indices. Thus, if the original polynomial g(x) was symmetric, then the only way it can still be symmetric after being written in this form is if the only monomial with nonzero coefficient is the one for which all the νi are zero, i.e. the constant term. But then the constant term is a polynomial of elementary symmetric functions, proving the corollary. The proof is an algorithm for putting g(x) in the desired form.
Let's work out an example. Unfortunately, the only way to make an interesting enough example involves heavy computations. I will work out some steps of the example, but I will leave most of the boring manipulations to Maxima or to a diligent reader. Let us consider the symmetric polynomial in 3 variables g(x) = x12x2 + x12x3 + x22x1 + x22x3 + x32x1 + x32x2 Now, in 3 variables, the fi(t) from the proof above are
f3(t) = t3
- s1t2
+ s2t - s3,
Recall that f2 and f1 are obtained by symbolic synthetic division of the polynomial above them and that the remainders are zero. Also, recall at this point that the elementary symmetric functions in three variables are
s1 = x1
+ x2 + x3, Since f1(x1) = 0, f2(x2) = 0 and f3(x3) = 0, we obtain that
x1 = s1
- x2 - x3, So, the algorithm now says to replace this expression for x1 into g(x), which after expanding everything out becomes 3x2x32 - s1x32 + 3x22x3 - 4s1x2 x3 + s12x3 - s1x22 + s12x2. Note that we have succeeded in eliminating x1 from this expression. Now we do the same with x22, to obtain -3x33 + 3s1x32 - 3s2x3 + s1s2. Finally we replace x33 by its own expression to conclude that g(x) = s1s2 - 3s3, which is the expression of g(x) in terms of elementary symmetric functions that we sought. the smallest number that looks prime but isn't (idea)2007-12-23 20:00:54 No joke — there's a semi-serious proof involved here. We're looking for the smallest number that could easily be mistaken for prime but in fact is not. How do we find it? Well, since it's not prime, let's look for its prime factors.
But what about the smallest number that can't be described in fewer than 15 words? Buffon's Needle (thing)2007-11-18 03:58:43 linked by jrn Sewing without CalculusBuffon's needle is deeply unsatisfying: a question with only a passing relationship to circles (the needle can fall in any orientation -- but there's still the small matter of lateral motion!) ends up connected to π. Why? The standard proof -- above in devout's writeup, with integrals -- does little to explain the mysterious appearance of π. Calculation is often like that. Geometric measure theory offers a "clean" proof, one that almost does explain where π comes from. And it goes like this.
The proof above is based on what appears in the introduction to
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